1) Scientific methods models link _________________ – presumed causes, with _________________ – outcomes, of practical value and interest.
A. independent variables, dependent variables.
B. discovered variables, with undisclosed variables.
C. proven variables, non-proven variables.
D. specific variables, contingency variables.
2) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the following EXCEPT:
A. an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.
B. contingency thinking.
C. use of scientific methods.
D. an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.
3) Organizational behavior goals include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. improve the performance of people.
B. improve the level of organizational profits.
C. improve the quality of overall work life.
D. improve the performance of organizations.
4) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.
A. vocal aspects
B. oral aspects
C. verbal aspects
D. visible aspects
5) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.
A. shared values
B. common culture
C. implicit culture
D. observable culture
6) Which of the following statements about the management of organizational culture is NOT correct?
A. good managers are able to help build resilient cultures in situations where the features of strong cultures are absent.
B. corporate culture can be managed by using organizational development techniques to modify specific elements of the culture that address both external adaptation and internal integration.
C. dictate rules from the top of the organization.
D. corporate culture can be managed by directly modifying the observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions that deal with issues of external adaptation.
7) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll draws a distinction between __________.
A. immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers
B. immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers
C. amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers
D. immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers
8) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of the following is false?
A. managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.
B. managers spend much time working alone.
C. managers work with many communication media.
D. managers work long hours.
9) Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals should guard against include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and attitudes.
B. favoring others who can benefit someone.
C. promoting people who excel in their respective positions.
D. claiming too much personal credit for one’s performance contributions.
10) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?
A. Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.
B. Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.
C. In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.
D. In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken.
11) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.
A. geographic differences
B. language differences
C. lifestyle differences
D. religious differences
12) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face communication.
A. Mangled messages.
B. Mixed messages.
C. Merged messages.
D. Perceptual distractions.
13) All of these actions can be used to help create a high-performing team EXCEPT:
A. giving negative feedback.
B. setting the tone in the first team meeting.
C. having members spend time together.
D. find ways to create early “success.”
14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.
A. Teams that review things.
B. Teams that run things.
C. Teams that make or do things.
D. Teams that evaluate things.
15) A high-performing team can be created by doing the all of the following EXCEPT:
A. communicating high-performance standards.
B. creating a sense of urgency.
C. ensuring that new information is kept to a minimum.
D. making sure members have the right skills.
16) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?
A. avoidance
B. compromise
C. accommodation
D. competition
17) Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle of your personal disputes.” This manager is using which conflict management style?
A. avoidance
B. unassertive
C. accommodation
D. authoritative command
18) The conflict management style of __________involves being cooperative and unassertive. This style is characterized by letting the wishes of others rule, and smoothing over or overlooking differences to maintain harmony.
A. avoidance
B. collaboration
C. completion
D. accommodation
19) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.
A. the relationship between values and attitudes.
B. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.
C. perceptions on-the-job.
D. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.
20) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.
A. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
B. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
C. an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.
D. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
21) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________.
A. the consequences of an individual’s behavior.
B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
D. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
22) In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources; technology; membership diversity; and group size – are stronger.
A. True
B. False
23) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.
A. True
B. False
24) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out.
A. True
B. False
25) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.
A. True
B. False
26) Stress is a potential source of both anxiety and frustration, which can harm the body’s physiological and psychological well-being over time.
A. True
B. False
27) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them.
A. True
B. False
28) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct?
A. senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders.
B. in other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc.
C. in U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid.
D. in firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various constituencies.
29) The essence of power is __________
A. having a Machiavellian personality.
B. a distinguished reputation.
C. personal desire.
D. control over the behavior of others.
30) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?
A. the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.
B. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs
C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.
D. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.
31) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.
A. True
B. False
32) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.
A. True
B. False
33) High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow them to excel at teamwork and achieve special performance advantages.
A. True
B. False
34) All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct EXCEPT:
A. the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence on subordinates by an appointed or elective e leader.
B. leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but to other people as well.
C. the influence process often involves peer or lateral influence.
D. leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a superior.
35) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:
A. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.
B. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.
C. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.
D. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.
36) Behavior strategies include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. self reward
B. self observation
C. self goal setting
D. self accomplishment
37) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.
A. proactive phenomenon
B. impatience trap
C. immobility trap
D. boiled frog phenomenon
38) One of the foremost trends in management involves using __________ to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raise productivity.
A. total quality management
B. reengineering techniques
C. just-in time inventory control
D. information technology
39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.
A. centralized
B. bureaucratic
C. mechanistic
D. organic