What argument does Aquinas give for the view that human beings have free will (i.e. they can, to some extent, determine what they choose
to do). How does his answer depend on the notions that the will is ordered to the “good”, that humans are able to form universal concepts
of things, and that no finite thing is good in every respect? (Remember that in saying the will is “ordered” or “directed towards” the
good, Aquinas does not mean we will always prefer what is morally good—his notion of the good is broader than that).